DOP-C02 Practice Questions — Free

DOP-C02 is the second professional-level AWS exam and the operations counterpart to SAP-C02's architecture path. It is aimed at engineers who own the pipelines, the monitoring and the pager rather than the diagrams; SOA-C03 or DVA-C02 is the better starting point if this would be your first AWS exam.

Recall will not carry it. It is a judgement exam: two of the four options are usually both workable, and only one fits the constraint the scenario actually set, whether that is the deployment window, the rollback requirement, the compliance boundary or the cost. The skill is noticing which of those constraints the question is really about.

SDLC Automation is the largest of its six domains, followed by configuration management and infrastructure as code alongside security and compliance, then resilience, monitoring and logging, and incident and event response. The pass mark is higher than the associate exams use, and the margin is thinner than people moving up from SAA-C03 or DVA-C02 tend to expect.

How DOP-C02 is weighted

  1. SDLC Automation22%
  2. Configuration Management and IaC17%
  3. Resilient Cloud Solutions15%
  4. Monitoring and Logging15%
  5. Incident and Event Response14%
  6. Security and Compliance17%

SDLC Automation

5 questions

  1. Question 1 of 25

    A container image must be scanned for vulnerabilities before deployment. Where does this belong?

    • A.A runtime check in production with no pipeline gate
    • B.A review during the next monthly security audit cycle
    • C.A scan run on the developer's laptop before committing
    • D.A pipeline stage failing the build on critical scan findingsCorrect

    Answer: D

    Scanning gates belong in the pipeline before deployment.

  2. Question 2 of 25

    A team must guarantee that emergency changes are still recorded and reviewed. Which practice fits?

    • A.A post-incident review with retrospective approval recordedCorrect
    • B.Emergency changes exempted from any record or review
    • C.Waiting for normal approval even during a live outage
    • D.Recording the change only if someone remembers to

    Answer: A

    Emergency paths still require records and retrospective review.

  3. Question 3 of 25

    A build's output differs between two runs of the same commit. Which cause is most likely?

    • A.The pipeline having a different number of defined stages
    • B.The artifact bucket being located in another Region
    • C.The build agent running in a different Availability Zone
    • D.Unpinned dependencies or non-deterministic build stepsCorrect

    Answer: D

    Unpinned inputs cause non-reproducible builds.

  4. Question 4 of 25 · multiple response

    Which of the following are appropriate reasons to fail a pipeline stage? (Select TWO)

    • A.Automated tests failing or coverage dropping below the thresholdCorrect
    • B.The deployment being requested late in the working day
    • C.The change being authored by a junior engineer
    • D.A security scan reporting findings above the agreed severityCorrect

    Answers: A, D

    Gates are evidence-based, not author- or timing-based.

  5. Question 5 of 25

    A build produces artifacts consumed by a later stage in a different Region. What is required?

    • A.Rebuilding the artifact from source in the target Region
    • B.Manual copying of the artifacts between the two Regions
    • C.A regional artifact bucket per Region with cross-Region actionsCorrect
    • D.A single artifact bucket in the pipeline's home Region only

    Answer: C

    Cross-Region actions require a regional artifact store per Region.

Configuration Management and IaC

4 questions

  1. Question 6 of 25

    A CloudFormation stack update must be reviewed before it modifies production resources. What should be used?

    • A.A change set showing the resource changes before executionCorrect
    • B.Deleting and recreating the stack on every single change
    • C.Manual console edits applied to the affected resources
    • D.A direct stack update with automatic rollback disabled

    Answer: A

    Change sets preview the effect of a stack update.

  2. Question 7 of 25

    A team wants configuration values shared across environments without redeploying stacks. Which service fits?

    • A.Values hard-coded into each application's container image
    • B.Environment variables set by hand on each instance
    • C.Parameter Store values read by the applications at runtimeCorrect
    • D.A configuration file committed into the source repository

    Answer: C

    Parameter Store centralises runtime configuration.

  3. Question 8 of 25

    A CloudFormation deployment failed and left the stack in UPDATE_ROLLBACK_FAILED. What is the appropriate action?

    • A.Delete the entire AWS account and start again from scratch
    • B.Edit the resources manually and ignore the stack's state
    • C.Continue the rollback skipping stuck resources, then fix and retryCorrect
    • D.Leave the stack in the failed state indefinitely

    Answer: C

    Continue-update-rollback with skipped resources recovers the stack.

  4. Question 9 of 25

    An organisation must ensure resources are tagged with an owner for cost attribution. Which approach fits?

    • A.An assumption that teams tag their own resources correctly
    • B.A tagging convention documented in the engineering wiki
    • C.A monthly report of untagged resources for teams to fix
    • D.Tag enforcement at creation with detection and remediationCorrect

    Answer: D

    Enforcement plus remediation achieves reliable tagging.

Resilient Cloud Solutions

4 questions

  1. Question 10 of 25

    A multi-tier application must limit the impact of one tenant's traffic on others. Which approach fits?

    • A.Scaling the whole platform to suit the largest tenant
    • B.A single shared pool with no per-tenant limits applied
    • C.Rate limiting and per-tenant quotas at the entry pointCorrect
    • D.Blocking every tenant when one exceeds its capacity

    Answer: C

    Per-tenant limits contain noisy-neighbour impact.

  2. Question 11 of 25

    An Auto Scaling group must replace instances gradually when a new AMI is released. Which capability fits?

    • A.An instance refresh with a minimum healthy percentage setCorrect
    • B.Leaving the older instances running indefinitely
    • C.Manually replacing the instances one at a time by hand
    • D.Terminating every instance at once and letting scaling recover

    Answer: A

    Instance refresh rolls out AMI changes safely.

  3. Question 12 of 25

    A stateful workload must retain data when instances are replaced. Which approach fits?

    • A.Recreate the state manually after every replacement
    • B.Prevent the instances from ever being replaced at all
    • C.Store state in a managed service or attached durable storageCorrect
    • D.Keep the state on the instance's ephemeral local disk

    Answer: C

    State belongs outside replaceable compute.

  4. Question 13 of 25

    A team must verify their application behaves correctly when an Availability Zone is impaired. Which practice fits?

    • A.Reading the architecture diagram to confirm zone coverage
    • B.Assuming the load balancer handles zone failure correctly
    • C.Counting the instances present in each Availability Zone
    • D.A controlled experiment removing a zone's capacityCorrect

    Answer: D

    Controlled zone-failure experiments validate the behaviour.

Monitoring and Logging

4 questions

  1. Question 14 of 25

    A team wants to be alerted before a resource limit is reached rather than after. Which approach fits?

    • A.An alarm that fires once the quota is fully exhausted
    • B.Alarms on utilisation trending toward the quota with headroomCorrect
    • C.A monthly review of the account's current service quotas
    • D.A support ticket raised after the limit has been reached

    Answer: B

    Leading indicators give time to act before exhaustion.

  2. Question 15 of 25

    Which practice prevents log volume from growing without bound and cost with it?

    • A.Retaining every single log line indefinitely by default
    • B.Retention policies with sampling of low-value log dataCorrect
    • C.Disabling logging whenever the monthly bill increases
    • D.Storing the logs on instances rather than centrally

    Answer: B

    Retention and filtering control log cost.

  3. Question 16 of 25

    Which metric best indicates whether an SQS-based system is keeping up with demand?

    • A.The total size of the S3 artifact bucket
    • B.The count of EC2 instances running in the Region
    • C.ApproximateAgeOfOldestMessage on the queueCorrect
    • D.The number of Lambda functions in the account

    Answer: C

    Rising message age indicates the consumers are falling behind.

  4. Question 17 of 25

    A team must detect a gradual memory leak in a production service. Which approach fits?

    • A.CPU utilization alarms configured on the load balancer
    • B.Agent-collected guest memory metrics trended with a growth alarmCorrect
    • C.A one-time memory check performed at deployment
    • D.Billing alerts covering the account's monthly spend

    Answer: B

    Trended guest memory metrics reveal leaks.

Incident and Event Response

4 questions

  1. Question 18 of 25

    An S3 bucket unexpectedly becomes publicly accessible. Which automated response fits?

    • A.A CloudWatch alarm monitoring the bucket's storage size
    • B.A monthly review of bucket permissions by the security team
    • C.An email alert with no automated remediation attached to it
    • D.An EventBridge rule on the finding invoking remediationCorrect

    Answer: D

    Event-driven remediation closes exposure immediately.

  2. Question 19 of 25

    An automated response must not run repeatedly for the same recurring event. What should the design include?

    • A.Idempotency and a suppression window preventing re-triggeringCorrect
    • B.Disabling the rule permanently after its first execution
    • C.Requiring manual approval before every automated response
    • D.Running the response as many times as the event fires

    Answer: A

    Idempotency and suppression prevent repeated remediation.

  3. Question 20 of 25

    Which practice ensures the right people are informed during a customer-impacting incident?

    • A.A plan with defined roles, channels, and update cadenceCorrect
    • B.A single update posted once the incident has been resolved
    • C.Individual engineers messaging whoever they think should know
    • D.Waiting for stakeholders to ask about the impact

    Answer: A

    Defined communication plans keep stakeholders informed.

  4. Question 21 of 25

    An unhealthy instance must be replaced automatically without human action. Which capability fits?

    • A.A weekly manual audit of every instance's health status
    • B.Auto Scaling health checks with automatic instance replacementCorrect
    • C.An email alert sent to the operations team mailbox
    • D.A support ticket raised for an engineer to investigate

    Answer: B

    Auto Scaling replaces instances failing health checks.

Security and Compliance

4 questions

  1. Question 22 of 25

    A team must give a contractor temporary access to one account for two weeks. Which approach fits?

    • A.Federated access with a time-bound, task-scoped roleCorrect
    • B.Sharing an existing engineer's credentials temporarily
    • C.Public access to the resources the contractor needs
    • D.A permanent IAM user granted administrator access

    Answer: A

    Time-bound federated access limits exposure.

  2. Question 23 of 25

    A team must limit which principals can invoke a production deployment. Which control fits?

    • A.A naming convention identifying the production pipeline
    • B.IAM policy and approval restricting who can trigger productionCorrect
    • C.A calendar entry showing the planned release schedule
    • D.An announcement posted in the team's chat channel

    Answer: B

    Permission and approval controls restrict production deployment.

  3. Question 24 of 25

    An organisation must ensure a new service meets security requirements before launch. Which approach fits?

    • A.A security review performed after the service goes live
    • B.A general expectation that teams follow best practice
    • C.A threat model and control checks in the design and pipelineCorrect
    • D.An annual penetration test covering all of the services

    Answer: C

    Design-time threat modelling with enforced checks precedes launch.

  4. Question 25 of 25

    Which approach detects publicly exposed resources across many accounts continuously?

    • A.Security Hub aggregating Config and access analyzer findingsCorrect
    • B.A one-time review carried out before the annual audit
    • C.A CloudWatch alarm on the organisation's total spend
    • D.A spreadsheet of resources maintained by each team

    Answer: A

    Aggregated continuous findings surface exposure across accounts.

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